MUMBAI INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT P.LTD. Vs M/S GOLDEN CHARIOT AIRPORT
Bench: G.S. SINGHVI,ASOK KUMAR GANGULY, , ,
Case number: C.A. No.-008201-008201 / 2010
Diary number: 7906 / 2009
Advocates: Vs
M. V. KINI & ASSOCIATES
REPORTABLE IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CIVIL APPEAL No. 8201 OF 2010 (Arising out of Special Leave Petition (C) No.6556/09
Mumbai International Airport Pvt. Ltd. ...Appellant(s)
- Versus -
M/s Golden Chariot Airport & Anr. ...Respondent(s)
WITH CIVIL APPEAL No. 8200 OF 2010
(Arising out of Special Leave Petition (C) No.11663/09
Airport Authority of India ...Appellant(s)
- Versus -
M/s Golden Chariot Airport & Anr. ...Respondent(s)
J U D G M E N T
GANGULY, J.
1. Leave granted.
2. These two appeals, one by Mumbai
International Airport Pvt. Ltd. and another 1
by Airport Authority of India, seek to
impugn the judgment of the High Court dated
March 4, 2009.
3. The relevant facts of the case are that M/s
Golden Chariot Airport (hereinafter
referred to as “the contesting respondent”)
succeeded in a tendering process for
running a deluxe grade-I restaurant,
covering a space of about 5000 sq. ft., in
the car park zone in front of Terminal 1A
of the Mumbai Airport. Pursuant to the said
bid of the contesting respondent, a Licence
Agreement dated 16.1.96, was entered into
between the Airport Authority of India
(hereinafter AAI) and the contesting
respondent.
4. Some of the clauses of the said Licence
Agreement are relevant as one of the
arguments advanced by the contesting
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respondent, before the Estate Officer, the
High Court and this Court is that the
licence is irrevocable. It has also been
urged by the contesting respondent, that
apart from the Licence Agreement, there has
been an oral extension of the licence and
the contesting respondent was assured that
it is irrevocable, and on the basis of such
assurance, it has invested considerable
money in building the restaurant.
5. From the first clause of the Licence
Agreement it is clear that the licence is
valid for a period of three years, from
27.11.95 to 26.11.98. Apart from the first
clause, there are several other clauses in
the licence, like clauses 23, 24, 26, 27
and 29 in the General Terms and Conditions,
which are a part of the Licence Agreement.
The aforesaid clauses are set out:
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“23.In the event of the Licensee being prohibited from selling one or more articles in the premises because of Government Laws/Rules/Regulations/Orders, the Authority shall not be liable for any loss suffered by the Licensee in such an event the Licensee shall not be entitled to any reduction in the fees payable to the Authority or permission for sale of additional items.
24. The Licensee shall deposit duplicate keys of the premises with the Authority whenever the Airport Director demands and permit the Authority to make use of the keys during the emergency. The Licensee shall not remove or replace the lock on the outdoor or change the locking device on the said outer door of the shop.
25. xxx
26. On expiry of the period or on termination of the licence by the Authority on account of any breach on the part of the Licensee, the Licensee shall deliver the possession of the premises in good condition and peaceful manner along with furniture, fittings, equipments and installations, if any, provided by the Authority. Further, Licensee shall remove his/their goods and other materials from the premises immediately, failing which Authority reserves its right to remove such goods/materials at the cost and risk of the Licensee and demand payment for such removal. If such payment is not made within 10 days, Authority shall be at liberty to dispose off the goods/materials of the Licensee by
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public auction to recover the cost. The Licensee shall not be entitled to raise any objection in such an eventuality.
27. The licence herewith granted shall not be construed in any way as giving or creating any other right or interst in the said space building(s)/land/garden/tank/ premises to or in favour of the Licensee but shall be construed to be only as a licence in terms and conditions herein contained.
28. xxx
29. The provision of the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971 and the rules framed thereunder which are now in force or which may hereafter came into force shall be applicable for all matters provided in the said Act.”
6. It is clear from what is extracted above
that the licence is not irrevocable. Apart
from that it is clear that the provisions
of the Public Premises (Eviction of
Unauthorized Occupants) Act, 1971 and the
Rules framed thereunder have been made
applicable to the Licence Agreement. It is
not in dispute that after the initial grant 5
of the said licence, the same was, under
request of the contesting respondent,
extended upto 26.5.2000. Before the
extended period could expire, a notice
dated 4.5.2000 was sent by the Senior
Commercial Manager on behalf of AAI to the
contesting respondent, requesting it to
vacate and hand over physical possession of
the licensed premises on expiry of the
extended licence on 26.5.2000.
7. Instead of doing so, the contesting
respondent filed, on 15.5.2000, a suit in
the Bombay City Civil Court being suit No.
3050/2000, praying for canceling the notice
dated 4.5.2000 and for permanent injunction
restraining AAI from evicting, demolishing,
or removing the restaurant premises of the
contesting respondent without adopting the
due process of law. In the said suit, the
contesting respondent prayed for a
declaration that the AAI has granted an
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irrevocable licence and AAI has no right to
terminate, cancel or revoke the licence.
The exact prayer to the aforesaid effect is
as under:
(a) “For a declaration of this Hon’ble Court thereby declaring that the defendants have granted an irrevocable licence in favour of the plaintiffs in respect of the said restaurant business situated at the car park of Terminal 1A of Santa Cruz Airport Mumbai, and that the same is subsisting valid and in full force and effect and further that the defendants have no right to terminate, revoke and/or cancel the same and/or interfere with the peaceful running of the said business of the plaintiffs at least till such time as the said land, beneath the said restaurant is not required for Airport related development purpose.”
8. On such suit being filed, the Bombay City
Civil Court returned the plaint under Order
VII Rule 10 of Civil Procedure Code (for
short “CPC”), inter alia, on the ground
that the City Civil Court does not have the
pecuniary jurisdiction to hear the case in
view of the declaration prayed for.
7
9. Aggrieved by the said Order, the
contesting respondent preferred an appeal
before the Bombay High Court. When the said
appeal came up for hearing on 12.7.01, it
was represented by the contesting
respondent that they will drop the prayer
in Clause (a) of the plaint, which is the
prayer for the declaration that the licence
is irrevocable. On such stand being taken
by the contesting respondent before the
Bombay High Court, there was a consensus
between the parties, and the High Court was
pleased to pass the following Order:
“……the impugned order is set aside without examining the merits or demerits of the impugned order and the matter is question is remitted back to the City Civil Court, Bombay granting liberty to the Plaintiff to move proper application for amendment of the plaint so as to enable him to delete prayer clause (a), and other pleadings raised in support thereof in the plaint…….
10. In view of the aforesaid Order of the High
Court, the matter was remanded to the 8
Bombay City Civil Court. The City Civil
Court decreed the suit by a judgment dated
11.2.04. In the said judgment, the Bombay
City Civil Court held that on a reading of
clauses 16, 29 and 30 of the Licence
Agreement it was clear that both parties
had agreed to submit themselves to the
provisions of the Public Premises (Eviction
of Unauthorized Occupants) Act, 1971
(hereinafter referred to as the 1971 Act)
and Rules framed thereunder. The Court thus
held that the AAI were bound to follow the
due process of law for evicting the
contesting respondent from the suit
premises, as given under the 1971 Act.
11. Accordingly, proceedings were initiated
before the Estate Officer on 27.09.04 and
notices were issued by the Estate Officer
under Sections 4, 5, 5A, 5B and 7 of the
1971 Act to the contesting respondent.
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Hearings were conducted on 26.10.04 and
8.11.04.
12. On 13.11.04, the contesting respondent
addressed a letter to AAI for extension of
licence with respect to the licensed
premises till AAI required it for airport
development purposes. Further hearings
before Estate Officer were conducted and on
12.01.05, after completion of the hearing
and closing of the summary proceedings, the
contesting respondent addressed a letter
contending that the hearing of the matter
be deferred until AAI communicated its
decision on the letter dated 13.11.04. The
contesting respondent once again addressed
a letter dated 11.02.05 to the Estate
Officer reiterating the same request and
urged the Estate Officer to reopen the case
to enable the contesting respondent to lead
evidence in the matter. On 18.03.05, the
1
Estate Officer heard the case of the
contesting respondent and rejected the
same.
13. Aggrieved, the contesting respondent filed
a writ petition (No. 2900/2005) before the
Bombay High Court. On 30.06.05, the Bombay
High Court dismissed the writ petition by
passing the following order:
“Allowed to withdraw the liberty to make a fresh application which shall be decided, in accordance with law. All questions, including the questions of tenability, are left open.”
14. Meanwhile, the Estate Officer Mr. V.K.
Monga was transferred and a new Estate
Officer Mr. Narinder Kaushal was appointed.
Mr. Kaushal forwarded a copy of the record
of proceedings to Mr. Monga by a letter
dated 11.08.05. Mr. Monga, by letter dated
12.09.05, forwarded a draft summary of the
proceedings.
1
15. Even after withdrawal of the writ petition,
a letter dated 28.12.05 was written by the
advocate of the contesting respondent
referring to the withdrawn writ petition,
and requesting the Estate Officer for an
adjournment of proceedings in view of its
previous letter dated 13.11.04.
16. On 7.3.06, the Estate Officer passed a
detailed Order in EO Case No.6/2004,
holding inter alia that the contesting
respondent was in unauthorized occupation
of the licensed premises, which was a
public premises and it was liable to be
evicted from the said premises under
Section 5 of the 1971 Act with effect from
27.05.2000.
17. Aggrieved thereby, the contesting
respondent filed an appeal under Section 9
of the 1971 Act before the Bombay City
1
Civil Court (M.A. No. 39/2006), which was
dismissed by the Bombay City Civil Court on
24.7.2008.
18. It may be mentioned here that between 2003
to 2006, Union of India, through its
Ministry of Civil Aviation, came out with a
policy for privatization of airports.
Resultantly, the Airports Authority of
India Act, 1991 was amended by the Airports
Authority of India (Amendment) Act, 2003.
Accordingly, Mumbai International Airport
Private Ltd. (MIA) was incorporated on
2.03.06 with the object of operating,
maintaining, developing, designing,
constructing, upgrading, modernizing and
managing the Mumbai Airport and to enter
into contracts with third parties for the
said purpose.
1
19. On 4.04.06, MIA entered into an Operation,
Management and Development Agreement (OMDA)
whereby AAI granted MIA the exclusive right
and authority (for 30 years commencing from
3.05.06) to undertake some of the functions
of the AAI such as operation, maintenance,
development, design, construction,
upgradation, modernization, finance and
management of the Mumbai Airport.
20. Pursuant to the OMDA, AAI entered into a
Lease Agreement dated 26.04.06, by which
most of the immovable properties of AAI at
the Mumbai Airport, including the licensed
premises, were leased to the MIA.
21. In 2007, MIA took out a Chamber Summons
before the Bombay City Civil Court for
impleading itself as a party in the appeal
filed by the contesting respondent (Appeal
No.39/2006). The appeal of the contesting
1
respondent and the Chamber Summons of MIA
were heard by the Bombay City Civil Court.
By its Order dated 24.07.08, the Bombay
City Civil Court dismissed the appeal of
the contesting respondent and allowed the
Chamber Summons of MIA.
22. After the dismissal of its appeal by the
City Civil Court, the contesting respondent
filed a writ petition (No. 5591/2008) in
the Bombay High Court, without making MIA a
party. On 26.07.08, the Bombay High Court
passed an ex-parte ad-interim Order
directing the parties to maintain status
quo. On 28.07.08, MIA filed a civil
application for impleadment in the writ
proceedings before the High Court and on
6.08.08 the High Court allowed the same.
23. The Bombay High Court passed the impugned
Order on 4.03.09 whereby it allowed the
1
writ petition and set aside the judgment of
the Bombay City Civil Court dated 24.07.08.
The High Court held that the order of the
Estate Officer Mr. Kaushal was null and
void for his failure to consider the case
himself as he had verbatim reproduced the
entire order of Mr. Monga with a few
cosmetic changes. The High Court thus
remanded the matter to the Estate Officer
for a fresh decision in accordance with
law.
24. After the impugned Order of the High Court
dated 4.3.09, whereby the matter was
remanded to the Estate Officer, hearing
took place on 14.5.09 by the new Estate
Officer Mr. Y. Kumaraswamy. Hearings before
Mr. Kumaraswamy were adjourned as by
17.3.09, challenging the order of the High
Court dated 4.3.09, an SLP (6556/2009) was
filed by MIA, and soon thereafter, another
1
SLP challenging the same order of the High
Court was filed by AAI on 28.3.09.
25. In view of such SLPs being filed before
this Court, hearing before Mr. Kumaraswamy
stood adjourned.
26. Both the aforesaid SLPs, now converted into
appeals, were tagged by an order of this
Court dated 8.5.09, passed in SLP No.
11663/2009 and thereafter were heard
together. In the meantime, Mr. Kumaraswamy
retired and one Mr. Keshav Sharma, General
Manager (Communication & Land Management)
was appointed the new Estate Officer.
27. Subsequently, during the pendency of the
proceedings before this Court, it
transpires on a representation made before
this Court on 29.1.10, that there was no
Estate Officer for hearing the matter. This
1
Court, therefore, directed AAI by its Order
of the same date to appoint an Estate
Officer under the provisions of the Act of
1971, within a period of 10 days and
directed the matter to be posted for
further hearing on 11.2.10.
28. On 11.2.10, this Court was informed that
Mr. K.K Gupta, Deputy General Manager (Land
Management) has been appointed the Estate
Officer under Section 3 of the 1971 Act, to
hear the case of the contesting respondent
in place of Mr. Keshav Sharma. In view of
such representation being made before this
Court, this Court directed the parties to
appear before the Estate Officer on
17.2.10, with a request that the Estate
Officer was to fix a date of hearing and
then to hear the parties and pass an
appropriate Order in accordance with law on
or before 30.4.10. It was also made clear
1
that the Order of the Estate Officer would
be made available to the parties within the
next two days. The parties were given
liberty, if so advised, to challenge or
support the Order of the Estate Officer in
the pending proceeding before this Court
and which was posted before this Court on
7.5.10.
29. It appears that on 29.4.10, the Estate
Officer, after hearing the parties, passed
a final order directing the contesting
respondent to vacate the premises. It also
directed the contesting respondent to pay
damages for unauthorized occupation of the
premises by payment of compensation and
municipal taxes.
30. Aggrieved by the said Order, the contesting
respondent filed a miscellaneous appeal
before the Bombay City Civil Court,
1
challenging the abovementioned Order of the
Estate Officer.
31. The matter was placed before this Court on
11.5.10 and on that date learned Counsel
for the contesting respondent took a stand
that the pending proceedings before this
Court arising out of the two SLPs had
become infructuous. The impugned Order of
the Bombay High Court dated 4.3.09 was no
longer holding the field. Instead of that,
the present Order dated 29.4.10 of the
Estate Officer is the operative order and
against that already an appeal has been
filed by the contesting respondent before
the Bombay City Civil Court.
32. Counsel for both AAI and MIA opposed the
aforesaid stand and contended that the
proceedings before this Court had not
become infructuous and as this Court has
2
retained its seisin over the matter as this
Court directed the Estate Officer to decide
the proceedings under the 1971 Act within a
time frame but kept the proceedings before
it pending.
33. This Court further gave liberty to the
parties in its Order dated 11.2.10, to
challenge the ultimate Order of the Estate
Officer in the pending proceedings before
this Court.
34. The Court after hearing the parties, held
that the proceedings before this Court had
not become infructuous. Since the order of
this Court dated 11.5.10 has a bearing on
the issues, the same is set out:
“Heard learned counsel for the parties.
Today when the matters were taken up before this Court, this Court was informed by Mr.Mukul Rohtagi, learned senior counsel for the petitioners that pursuant to the order of this Court dated 11.02.2010 the
2
Estate Officer has decided the matter and passed an order dated 29.04.2010. Impugning the said order, the respondents have filed an appeal under Section 9 of the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorized Occupants) Act, 1971 before the Principal Judge, Bombay City Civil Court, Mumbai. Mr.Rohtagi submitted that such filing of appeal before the aforesaid judicial authority in view of the directions contained in that order amounts to an act of contempt. He further submitted that in any event, the said filing of appeal circumvented the order of this Court dated 11.02.2010. Mr.Shyam Divan, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the respondents, on the other hand, contended that his client has filed the said appeal in view of the statute made by the Parliament and his client has exercised that right. According to him, such right of appeal cannot be taken away by any order of this Court. In support of his argument, he cited several decisions of this Court.
Mr.Rohtagi, learned senior counsel also in support of his submission cited several decisions and submitted that this Court passed the order in order to prevent conflict of decisions and also considering the facts and circumstances and the question of public interest involved in this case namely the urgency of expanding Bombay Airport and the right of the respondents to run their restaurant in the said Airport.
This Court, however, by balancing the equity had passed the said order and the said order does not decide the questions that are raised in the SLPs which are pending and over which this Court retains
2
its seisin. We are of the view that by the order which has been passed namely the order dated 11.02.2010, the right of the respondents to file an appeal has not been taken away. This Court preserved the right of the respondents and also permitted them to challenge the order that may be passed by the Estate Officer by filing an appropriate additional affidavit before this Court.
In view of the above, this Court directs that the appeal which has been filed by the respondents (Misc.Appeal No.50 of 2010) before the Principal Judge, City Civil Court, Mumbai be transferred to this Court. The record of the said appeal may form part of these SLPs. The petitioners are at liberty to file any additional affidavit in answer to the appeal filed by the respondents. The respondents may also file reply to the same. Such filing must be completed by the parties by 09.07.2010.
The matter may be placed for further consideration before this Court on 14.07.2010.”
35. Then the matter was taken up before this
Court on 29.7.10 and the learned Counsel
for the contesting respondent submitted
that Mr. K.K Gupta was not authorized to
discharge the functions of an Estate
Officer in accordance with Section 3(a) of
the 1971 Act. To respond to such a stand,
2
the learned Counsel for AAI took some time
to produce the necessary notifications
showing the appointment of the Estate
Officer.
36. Thereafter, the matter was heard. Before
this Court, the learned Counsel for the
contesting respondent, apart from raising
the aforesaid contention that Mr. K.K Gupta
was not validly appointed as an Estate
Officer, raised various other contentions.
37. It was first contended that there was an
oral assurance for an extension of the
licence to the extent that it will be an
irrevocable licence. Relying on such oral
extension, the contesting respondent made
substantial investment for constructing the
restaurant. The second contention was that
the licence was irrevocable. The third
contention was that the Estate Officer did
2
not give the contesting respondent a proper
hearing.
38. Learned Counsel of both AAI and MIA
strongly opposed the aforesaid contentions
raised on behalf of the contesting
respondent.
39. This Court unfortunately is unable to
uphold the contentions raised by the
contesting respondent in view of the
following reasons.
40. The case of the contesting respondent
before all the forums is that though the
licence period commenced on and from
27.11.95, the restaurant was made
operational on 1.1.97. The initial period
of licence was upto 26.11.98. Therefore, on
its own showing, the contesting respondent
completed the construction of the
2
restaurant by 1.1.97, which was well within
the initial licence period, which was upto
26.11.98. Admittedly thereafter, there have
been two extensions of the licence period
upto 26.5.2000. Therefore, the construction
having been completed and the restaurant
being operational by 1.1.97, there is no
occasion for the contesting respondent to
urge that it invested money in the
construction of the restaurant on the oral
assurance by the officers of the AAI about
extension of the licence so as to make it
irrevocable.
41. In fact no oral assurance of extension of
licence is contemplated in the facts of
this case. Such a contention is wholly
misconceived.
42. The AAI is a statutory body constituted
under Section 3 of the Airport Authority of
2
India Act, 1994 (AAI Act). Under Section
3(2) of the AAI Act, it is a body corporate
with power to hold and dispose of both
movable and immovable property and to
contract.
43. The power of the AAI to enter into
contracts has been conferred under Section
20 read with Section 21 of AAI Act. As per
Section 20, the AAI is competent to enter
into contracts (subject to the provisions
of Section 21) which may be necessary to
discharge its functions under the AAI Act.
44. Section 21 of AAI Act lays down the mode of
executing contracts on behalf of AAI. The
Section requires that every contract on
behalf of AAI is to be made by the
Chairperson or any other member/officer who
has been empowered to do so. Further, the
contracts, which have been specified in the
2
Regulations, have to be sealed with the
common seal of AAI.
45. Sub-section (2) of Section 21 of AAI Act
provides that the form and manner of the
contract shall be such as may be specified
by the Regulations.
46. The relevant Regulations have been framed
by the AAI with the previous approval of
the Central Government and in exercise of
the power conferred on it under Section
42(1) read with Section 42(2)(e) and (4),
read with Section 21 of the AAI Act, 1994
and the regulations are called the Airports
Authority of India (Contract) Regulations
2003. Obviously the regulations are
statutory.
47. The said Regulations specify that contracts
by AAI are required to be sealed with the
2
common seal of AAI. They further provide
that contracts are to be made with the
previous approval of the Central Government
and AAI.
48. Regulation 3(2) also state that all
contracts shall be finalized by the
execution of a Deed of Agreement, Deed of
Licence, Indenture or like instrument, duly
signed by AAI and the party concerned, and
the said instruments or deeds are to be
executed on non-judicial paper of
appropriate stamp value when necessary.
49. Having regard to the aforesaid statutory
framework, the case of the contesting
respondent that it was orally assured of
extension of licence by some officer of AAI
is of no legal consequence. No such
assurance has been proved, even if it is
proved, such assurance does not and cannot
2
bind the AAI. Being a statutory
corporation, it is totally bound by the Act
and the Regulations framed under the Act.
50. The very idea of a licence being
irrevocable is a bit of a contradiction in
terms. From the clauses of the licence
referred to above, it is clear that by its
terms the licence is revocable. It is well
known that a mere licence does not create
any estate or interest in the property with
which it is concerned. Normally a licence
confers legality to an act, which would
otherwise be unlawful. A licence can be
purely personal, gratuitous or contractual.
Whether a contractual licence is revocable
or not, would obviously depend on the
express terms of the contract. A
contractual licence is normally revocable,
except in certain circumstances that are
3
expressly provided for in the Indian
Easement Act, 1882.
51. A licence has been defined in Section 52 of
the Indian Easement Act, 1882 as a right to
do or continue to do in or upon the
immovable property of the grantor
something, which, in the absence of such
right, could be unlawful, but such right
does not amount an easement or an interest
in the property. [See Muskett vs. Hill (1839) 5 Bing (NC) 694, p.707 and Heap vs. Hartley (1889) 42 Ch. Div. 461, p.468 (CA)].
52. Following the aforesaid principles and the
clauses in the licence agreement, this
Court holds that the licence by its very
term is revocable. The stand of the
contesting respondent that its licence is
irrevocable as it has invested money in the
3
premises and made construction is directly
contrary to the stand which it took before
the Bombay High Court and which was
recorded in the High Court’s Order dated
12.7.01. It may be noted that when the City
Civil Court returned the plaint filed by
the contesting respondent it came up in
appeal against the said Order before the
Bombay High Court, it expressly gave up its
claim of irrevocable licence in order to
revive the suit. On such stand being taken,
the High Court remanded the suit for trial
before the City Civil Court. It is
therefore clear that the contesting
respondent has taken a stand before a Court
of Law and also got the benefit as a result
of taking such stand in as much as it got
the suit revived and tried and got the
benefit of an interim order in the said
proceedings. As a result of the aforesaid
stand being taken, the suit of the
3
contesting respondent went on before the
Bombay City Civil Court from 2001 to 2004
and in view of the interim protection, the
contesting respondent ran the restaurant
during that period.
53. Now the question is whether the contesting
respondent on a complete volte-face of its
previous stand can urge its case of
irrevocable licence before the Estate
Officer and now before this Court?
54. The answer has to be firmly in the
negative. Is an action at law a game of
chess? Can a litigant change and choose its
stand to suit its convenience and prolong a
civil litigation on such prevaricated
pleas?
55. The common law doctrine prohibiting
approbation and reprobation is a facet of
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the law of estoppel and well established in
our jurisprudence also.
56. The doctrine of election was discussed by
Lord Blackburn in the decision of the House
of Lords in Benjamin Scarf vs. Alfred George Jardine [(1881-82) 7 Appeal Cases 345], wherein the learned Lord formulated
“…a party in his own mind has thought that
he would choose one of two remedies, even
though he has written it down on a
memorandum or has indicated it in some
other way, that alone will not bind him;
but so soon as he has not only determined
to follow one of his remedies but has
communicated it to the other side in such a
way as to lead the opposite party to
believe that he has made that choice, he
has completed his election and can go no
further; and whether he intended it or not,
if he has done an unequivocal act…the fact
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of his having done that unequivocal act to
the knowledge of the persons concerned is
an election.”
57. In Tinkler vs. Hilder (1849) 4 Exch 187, Parke, B., stated that where a party had
received a benefit under an Order, it could
not claim that it was valid for one purpose
and invalid for another. (See page 190)
58. In Clough vs. London and North Western Rail Co. [(1861-73) All ER, Reprint, 646] the Court referred to Comyn’s Digest, wherein
it has been stated:- “If a man once
determines his election, it shall be
determined forever.” In the said case, the
question was whether in a contract of
fraud, whether the person on whom the fraud
was practiced had elected to avoid the
contract or not. The Court held that as
long as such party made no election, it
3
retained the right to determine it either
way, subject to the fact that an innocent
third party must not have acquired an
interest in the property while the former
party is deliberating. If a third party has
acquired such an interest, the party who
was deliberating will lose its right to
rescind the contract. Once such party makes
its election, it is bound to its election
forever. (See page 652)
59. In Harrison vs. Wells, 1966 (3) All ER 524, Salmon LJ, in the Court of Appeal, observed
that the rule of estoppel was founded on
the well-known principle that one cannot
approbate and reprobate. The doctrine was
further explained by Lord Justice Salmon by
holding “it is founded also on this
consideration, that it would be unjust to
allow the man who has taken full advantage
of a lease to come forward and seek to
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evade his obligations under the lease by
denying that the purported landlord was the
landlord”. (See page 530)
60. In Kok Hoong vs. Leong Cheong Kweng Mines Ltd., (1964 Appeal Cases 993), the Privy Council held that “a litigant may be shown
to have acted positively in the face of the
court, making an election and procuring
from it an order affecting others apart
from himself, in such circumstances the
court has no option but to hold him to his
conduct and refuse to start again on the
basis that he has abandoned.” (See page
1018)
61. Justice Ashutosh Mookerjee speaking for the
Division Bench of Calcutta High Court in
Dwijendra Narain Roy vs. Joges Chandra De,(AIR 1924 Cal 600), held that it is an elementary rule that a party litigant
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cannot be permitted to assume inconsistent
positions in Court, to play fast and loose,
to blow hot and cold, to approbate and
reprobate to the detriment of his opponent.
This wholesome doctrine, the learned Judge
held, applies not only to successive stages
of the same suit, but also to another suit
than the one in which the position was
taken up, provided the second suit grows
out of the judgment in the first.
62. It may be mentioned in this connection that
all the proceedings pursued by the
contesting respondent in which it took the
plea of irrevocable licence was virtually
in clear contradiction of its stand which
it took before the Bombay High Court on
12.7.01 where it had given up the plea of
‘irrevocable licence’. It is on this plea
that its suit again became triable by the
Bombay City Civil Court and all subsequent
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proceedings pursued by the contesting
respondent followed thereafter.
63. This Court has also applied the doctrine of
election in C. Beepathumma & Ors. vs. V.S. Kadambolithaya & Ors., 1964 (5) SCR 836, wherein this Court relied on Maitland as
saying: “That he who accepts a benefit
under a deed or will or other instrument
must adopt the whole contents of that
instrument, must conform to all its
provisions and renounce all rights that are
inconsistent with it.” (Maitlands Lectures
on Equity, Lecture 18). This Court also
took note of the principle stated in White
& Tudor’s Leading Case in Equity volume 18th
edition at p.444 – wherein it is stated,
“Election is the obligation imposed upon a
party by Courts of equity to choose between
two inconsistent or alternative rights or
claims in cases where there is clear
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intention of the person from whom he
derives one that he should not enjoy both…
That he who accepts a benefit under a deed
or will must adopt the whole contents of
the instrument.”
64. In M/s New Bihar Biri Leaves Co. & Ors. vs. State of Bihar & Ors., (1981) 1 SCC 537, this Court observed that it is a
fundamental principle of general
application that if a person of his own
accord, accepts a contract on certain terms
and works out the contract, he cannot be
allowed to adhere to and abide by some of
the terms of the contract which proved
advantageous to him and repudiate the other
terms of the same contract which might be
disadvantageous to him. The maxim, qui
approbat non reprobat (one who approbates
cannot reprobate), applies in our laws too.
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65. Therefore the conduct of the contesting
respondent in view of its inconsistent
pleas is far from satisfactory. By taking
such pleas, the contesting respondent has
succeeded in enjoying the possession of the
premises for the last 10 years even after
the expiry of its licence on 26.5.2000.
66. The complaint of the contesting respondent
that Mr. K.K. Gupta, while acting as Estate
Officer and deciding the proceedings,
failed to observe the principles of natural
justice, by not summoning the officers of
AAI, is without any substance. The Estate
Officer has given adequate reasons for not
summoning the officers of AAI by holding
that beyond 26.5.2000, there is no written
extension of the licence period. The Estate
Officer held, and in our view rightly, that
when written documents are there, any oral
assurance, which purports to contradict the
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written documents need not be considered.
Apart from that, this Court has already
recorded that in the facts of the case and
in the context of the statutory
dispensation discussed above, there is no
scope for an oral extension of licence.
Therefore, the reasoning given by the
Estate Officer, for not calling the
officers of AAI to prove the case of oral
extension of licence of the contesting
respondent, is sound and does not call for
any interference by this Court even when it
acts as an appellate authority.
67. The Estate Officer also declined to issue
directions for inspection of documents, as
prayed for by the contesting respondent on
valid grounds. The Estate Officer held that
it has to decide whether the contesting
respondent is in unauthorized occupation of
the public premises within the meaning of
the 1971 Act. That being the sole purpose 4
of his enquiry, the Estate Officer thought,
and rightly so, that its enquiry cannot be
widened by including a plea of
discrimination under Article 14 raised by
the contesting respondent.
68. Apart from that, this Court also does not
find any merit in the plea of
discrimination raised by the contesting
respondent, by contending that cases of
other licensees have been extended whereas
in its case, the licence has not been
extended. Such a plea is not factually
correct in as much as the licence of the
contesting respondent was also extended
twice. In any event, a plea of
discrimination can only be raised in aid of
a right. If a person has a right in law, to
be treated in a particular way, but that
treatment is denied to him, whereas others
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are given the same treatment, a plea of
discrimination can be made out.
69. We have already discussed that the
contesting respondent has no right in law,
to get its licence extended. Therefore, one
cannot have a plea of negative equality
under Article 14. There may be very many
administrative reasons for extending the
period of licence of other licensees, but
that does not give rise to a valid plea of
discrimination, when admittedly the
contesting respondent has no right in law
to get an extension.
70. Now the last point that remains is the
authority of Mr. K.K Gupta to function as
an Estate Officer. This is a point more of
desperation than of substance.
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71. Under Section 3 of the 1971 Act, the
Central Government’s power to appoint an
Estate Officer is provided.
72. From the compilation of notifications that
have been filed in this case by the learned
Attorney General, appearing for AAI, it
transpires that the Ministry of Civil
Aviation and Tourism, Department of Civil
Aviation, issued a notification dated
1.7.97, appointing several persons as
Estate Officers for the purpose of the 1971
Act. That notification was published in the
Official Gazette. By a further notification
dated 15.5.07, published in the Official
Gazette, Central Government amended its
previous notification and for the words
‘Airport Director’, the words ‘Deputy
General Manager (Land Management)’ were
substituted.
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73. It has not been argued by the learned
Counsel for the contesting respondent that
while issuing a notification under Section
3, the Central Government will have to name
a person or an individual as an Estate
Officer. The appointment of such Estate
Officer is by designation only. It is not
in dispute that Mr. K.K. Gupta, who
functioned as an Estate Officer and decided
the case of the contesting respondent, was
promoted and brought to Mumbai as Deputy
General Manager (Land Management). This is
admitted in the affidavit of the contesting
respondent. Therefore, Mr. K.K. Gupta by
virtue of his designation as Deputy General
Manager (Land Management) discharged his
function as a valid Estate Officer. There
can be no dispute about his authority to do
so since by the subsequent notification
dated 15.5.07, the words ‘Airport Director’
have been substituted for words ‘Deputy
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General Manager (Land Management)’. Hence,
there is no substance in these contentions
of the contesting respondent.
74. This Court even acting as an Appellate
Authority does not discern any error in the
Order dated 29.4.10 of the Estate Officer.
The appeal filed by the contesting
respondent before the City Civil Court,
Mumbai and transferred to this Court is
therefore dismissed.
75. However, from the facts discussed above, it
is amply demonstrated that the contesting
respondent has blown hot and cold by taking
inconsistent stand, and has therefore
prolonged several proceedings for more than
a decade. This Court is constrained to hold
that it did not pursue its proceedings
honestly in different fora. Therefore, the
appeal, being Misc. Appeal No. 50 of 2010,
filed by the contesting respondent before
the Principal Judge, City Civil Court, 4
Mumbai, which was transferred to this Court
by this Court’s order dated 11.05.2010 and
formed part of these appeals, is dismissed
with costs assessed at Rs.5,00,000/- to be
paid by the contesting respondent in favour
of the Supreme Court Mediation Center
within a period of two months from date.
76. The civil appeals filed by Airport
Authority of India and Mumbai International
Airport are allowed. All interim orders are
vacated.
.......................J. (G.S. SINGHVI)
.......................J. New Delhi (ASOK KUMAR GANGULY) September 22, 2010
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